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We need first to get acquainted with the term used in the Jewish Scriptures for the non-Jew: "stranger."
Strong's Concordance defines "stranger" :1616 ger (gare); or (fully) geyr (gare); from 1481; properly, a guest; by implication, a foreigner: KJV-- alien, sojourner, stranger.
Brown-Driver-Briggs' Hebrew Lexicon defines "stranger": 1616 ger or (fully) geyr- sojourner
In order to understand what comes next it would be important to begin to look for a "pattern" in the verses that follow not only in this article but the rest in this series as you will come to see that God included the non-Jews in the observance of not only the Festivals but the Sabbath as well. This pattern can be found not only in the Jewish Old Testament Scriptures but the New Testament as well. Having seen this then one has to wonder how we lost and deviated from such a pattern which was established in antiquity by God to the point where we have lost such obedience and observance today. One would have to ask Rome that question.
Genesis 17
12 And he that is eight days old shall be circumcised among you, every man child in your generations, he that is born in the house, or bought with money of any stranger, which [is] not of thy seed. {he that is eight...: Heb. a son of eight days}
Exodus 12
48 And when a stranger shall sojourn with thee, and will keep the Passover to the LORD, let all his males be circumcised, and then let him come near and keep it; and he shall be as one that is born in the land: for no uncircumcised person shall eat thereof.
As you can see from the above verse it was mandatory that before a non-Jew was permitted to observe the Passover he had to be circumcised. Many will think that this was just a "Mosaic" ordinance but that is not true. When one considers Abraham we find some interesting things concerning Abraham's knowledge of the "Passover" and his sanctification of this "appointed time" long before Moses. Let us look at the text for clues but these "clues" span over 4 chapters so bear with me in reading these long texts:
In reading these texts I want you to notice two things:
Gen 17:1-11 1 And when Abram was ninety years old and nine, the LORD appeared to Abram, and said unto him, I am the Almighty God; walk before me, and be thou perfect. 2 And I will make my covenant between me and thee, and will multiply thee exceedingly. 3 And Abram fell on his face: and God talked with him, saying, 4 As for me, behold, my covenant is with thee, and thou shalt be a father of many nations. 5 Neither shall thy name any more be called Abram, but thy name shall be Abraham; for a father of many nations have I made thee. 6 And I will make thee exceeding fruitful, and I will make nations of thee, and kings shall come out of thee. 7 And I will establish my covenant between me and thee and thy seed after thee in their generations for an everlasting covenant, to be a God unto thee, and to thy seed after thee. 8 And I will give unto thee, and to thy seed after thee, the land wherein thou art a stranger, all the land of Canaan, for an everlasting possession; and I will be their God. 9 And God said unto Abraham, Thou shalt keep my covenant therefore, thou, and thy seed after thee in their generations. 10 This is my covenant, which ye shall keep, between me and you and thy seed after thee; Every man child among you shall be circumcised. 11 And ye shall circumcise the flesh of your foreskin; and it shall be a token of the covenant betwixt me and you. (KJV)
In reading these texts I want you to also notice:
Answer for yourself: When in the Bible does it mention "unleavened" bread and what if any is there any connection with unleavened bread with any "appointed times with God" or "Festivals"? Yes; the Passover.
Of course you know that the children of Israel would bake unleavened bread when in Egypt just prior to the Exodus but this event has not happened yet. The account of Abraham is long before the Exodus so we must "think" and look for clues in the text.
Gen 19:1-3 1 And there came two angels to Sodom at even; and Lot sat in the gate of Sodom: and Lot seeing them rose up to meet them; and he bowed himself with his face toward the ground; 2 And he said, Behold now, my lords, turn in, I pray you, into your servant's house, and tarry all night, and wash your feet, and ye shall rise up early, and go on your ways. And they said, Nay; but we will abide in the street all night. 3 And he pressed upon them greatly; and they turned in unto him, and entered into his house; and he made them a feast, and did bake unleavened bread, and they did eat.
Answer for yourself: Since not being in a hurry so that they did not have time to add yeast to make "leavened" bread don't you see that there was really no reason to bake "unleavened" bread unless this "feast" mentioned in Gen. 19:3 as connected to the baking of "unleavened" bread as well as the prior circumcision of Abraham indicates that Abraham by revelation understood the LORD'S Passover and was in anticipation keeping the Passover which required not only circumcision but also the eating of unleavened bread?
Other than instances where the various offering involved the Levitical Priests and included the offering of unleavened bread (trespass offerings, thanksgiving offerings, meat offerings, heave offerings, and the vow of the Nazarite, etc.) where it was consumed as connected to the presentation of various offerings we are led to conclude that since associated with the word "feast" in the text that this instance concerning Abraham was none other than the Passover.
The only place we find the admonition of eating "unleavened bread" in the Bible is connected with the ordinances of the Passover:
Exod 12:1-8 1 And the LORD spake unto Moses and Aaron in the land of Egypt, saying, 2 This month shall be unto you the beginning of months: it shall be the first month of the year to you. 3 Speak ye unto all the congregation of Israel, saying, In the tenth day of this month they shall take to them every man a lamb, according to the house of their fathers, a lamb for an house: 4 And if the household be too little for the lamb, let him and his neighbour next unto his house take it according to the number of the souls; every man according to his eating shall make your count for the lamb. 5 Your lamb shall be without blemish, a male of the first year: ye shall take it out from the sheep, or from the goats: 6 And ye shall keep it up until the fourteenth day of the same month: and the whole assembly of the congregation of Israel shall kill it in the evening. 7 And they shall take of the blood, and strike it on the two side posts and on the upper door post of the houses, wherein they shall eat it. 8 And they shall eat the flesh in that night, roast with fire, and unleavened bread; and with bitter herbs they shall eat it. (KJV)
So here we find Abraham, a non-Jew but yet a Hebrew, being circumcised and keeping and observing the Passover long before Moses and Sinai!
Answer for yourself: Could this be a pattern for the non-Jew in the Bible; that God desires that he as well as the Jew, keep and observe the Passover as indicated in the further requirements of circumcision to the "stranger" before he observes the Passover?
Exodus 12
48 And when a stranger shall sojourn with thee, and will keep the Passover to the LORD, let all his males be circumcised, and then let him come near and keep it; and he shall be as one that is born in the land: for no uncircumcised person shall eat thereof.
As you can now understand when we re-read the above passage Moses is doing nothing but reiterating the already known wishes of God in Exodus 12:48 when he again commands the non-Jew (stranger) to keep the Passover and be circumcised. So the conclusion of this is simple: keeping the Passover is to be observed by non-Jews as well as Jews and circumcision is required prior to keeping the Passover and this is not a "Jewish thing" but a Godly thing. In passing also not that God did not say to keep the pagan feast of Isthar or Easter (Isthar was know to Abraham); God commanded that non-Jews keep and observe the Passover
Acts 16 3 Him would Paul have to go forth with him; and took and circumcised him because of the Jews which were in those quarters: for they knew all that his [Timothy] father was a Greek (his mother was Jewish, thus making it necessary for circumcision since being a Jew).
What most Christians and Jews fail to realize in the above verse is that although Judaism today recognizes "Jewishness" coming from the mother's side God has given us understanding in physiology today that teaches us that the chromosomes are determined by the male and not the female. That being the case we see again Divine revelation, although not understood completely at the time, made allowances for Timothy to be circumcised not really because of Jewish tradition but because of a Gentile circumcision was to be required according to the Covenant of Abraham (himself a non-Jew) and any participation in the Passover or other Biblical Festivals by non-Jews likewise required it. It is permissible to understand this "Jewish custom" but I believe it is better to understand the Heavenly decree and the reasons behind it; especially in light of what is required of the non-Jewish believer when Scripture is understood correctly.
What is important to see in this short study is that non-Jews were not allowed to participate fully in the Biblical Festivals unless the males were circumcised. Notice also that the death of Jesus/Yeshua did not alter ANYTHING IN THIS REGARD....because 25 years later in Acts 16 Paul felt obligated to circumcise the non-Jew Timothy. So these same admonitions applies today to the Christian believer.
Shalom.